The P2Y12 Inhibitor Paradox: Potency vs. Safety After ACS in Older Adults

An 86-year-old woman presents to a referring hospital with acute left-sided chest pain. Her medical history is notable for hypertension, a 4.2 cm dilated ascending aortic aneurysm, and a remote subdural hematoma without seizure that occurred 2 years before presentation in the setting of recurrent mechanical falls.

Her initial 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates an anterior ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Because the referring hospital does not have percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) capability and the nearest PCI-capable center is >2 hours away, she receives 35 mg of tenecteplase, along with the appropriate loading doses of aspirin, clopidogrel, and heparin. She is subsequently transferred to a PCI-capable center.

On arrival, she is hemodynamically stable, angina free, and her ECG shows signs of complete reperfusion. She then undergoes coronary angiography, which reveals a 99% stenosis of her mid-left anterior descending artery with Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) 1 flow. Successful revascularization is performed with placement of a 3.0 x 38 mm Onyx Frontier™ (Medtronic) drug-eluting stent resulting in TIMI 3 flow.

She is admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit for post-STEMI management. On further history, she reports living independently in an assisted living facility. She usually ambulates with a walker but had experienced two mechanical falls in the preceding year. Her home medications include duloxetine 30 mg once daily and metoprolol succinate 25 mg once daily.

Which one of the following P2Y12 inhibitors would you choose to optimize this patient's short-term outcome?

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