CCTA-Derived FFR

A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-week history of intermittent chest and epigastric discomfort that occurs when he goes for his usual walk after dinner and is relieved with rest. His symptoms have not improved with over-the-counter antacids. He has a history of hypertension, prediabetes, and dyslipidemia. He takes amlodipine 10 mg once daily, lisinopril 5 mg once daily, rosuvastatin 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500 mg twice daily.

On examination, his temperature is 97.8 degrees F, heart rate is 84 bpm, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg, respiratory rate is 14, oxygen saturation is 96% on room air, and body mass index is 27 kg/m2. The remainder of the exam is normal. Electrocardiography is normal. Echocardiography demonstrates normal left ventricular ejection fraction with normal regional wall motion. A coronary computed tomography angiogram (CCTA) demonstrates a calcified plaque in the mid-segment of the left circumflex artery that is interpreted as intermediate (50-70%) in severity. After discussing the findings with the patient, you decide to proceed with fractional flow reserve (FFR) derived from CCTA (FFRCT) for further risk stratification of the lesion in the left circumflex artery.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the diagnostic approach chosen?

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